This might be a stupid question - but if I allocate 1gig RAM to my virtual machine, if I don't have parallels running, it isn't affecting the memory in my actual system, right? For instance, I have 2 Gigs RAM - if I have allocated 1 Gig to My XP virtual machine, but I haven't even loaded up parallels, the full 2 Gigs is available to OSX right? I know this may be stupid - but I just wanted to make sure.....
